Navigation Mix questions 100

DGCA Air Navigation Trial Exam

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Total Questions: 100

Section 1: The Solar System & The Earth

  1. The Earth’s solar day is approximately 4 minutes longer than the Sidereal day because:

    A) The Earth’s rotation is slowing down.

    B) The Earth moves along its orbit while rotating on its axis.

    C) The Earth’s axis is tilted at $23.5^{\circ}$.

    D) The Sun’s diameter is larger than the Earth’s.

  2. What is the approximate value of the Earth’s compression (oblate spheroid shape)?

    A) 1/297

    B) 1/300

    C) 1/80

    D) 1/12

  3. Aphelion occurs when the Earth is:

    A) Closest to the sun.

    B) Farthest from the sun.

    C) At the equinox.

    D) At the solstice.

  4. The Sun moves across the celestial sphere at a rate of:

    A) $15^{\circ}$ per hour.

    B) $1^{\circ}$ per hour.

    C) $360^{\circ}$ per hour.

    D) $15^{\prime}$ per hour.

  5. Perihelion occurs in:

    A) July.

    B) January.

    C) March.

    D) September.

  6. The Earth rotates from:

    A) East to West.

    B) West to East.

    C) North to South.

    D) South to North.

  7. Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere occurs around:

    A) June 21.

    B) September 23.

    C) December 21.

    D) March 21.

  8. The point directly above the observer on the celestial sphere is the:

    A) Nadir.

    B) Zenith.

    C) Equinox.

    D) Solstice.

  9. The Earth’s orbit around the sun is:

    A) A perfect circle.

    B) An ellipse.

    C) A parabola.

    D) A hyperbola.

  10. The sun is at the Zenith at the Equator during:

    A) Solstices.

    B) Equinoxes.

    C) Every day.

    D) Never.

Section 2: Projections & Convergency

  1. On a Mercator projection, a straight line represents a:

    A) Great Circle.

    B) Rhumb Line.

    C) Small Circle.

    D) Orthodrome.

  2. Earth Convergency is calculated using the formula:

    A) $Ch. Long \times \sin(Mean\ Lat)$

    B) $Ch. Long \times \cos(Mean\ Lat)$

    C) $Ch. Lat \times \sin(Mean\ Long)$

    D) $Ch. Long$

  3. On a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection, the scale is correct at:

    A) The parallel of origin.

    B) The standard parallels.

    C) The pole.

    D) The equator.

  4. Polar Stereographic projections are most commonly used for navigation in:

    A) Equatorial regions.

    B) Mid-latitudes.

    C) Polar regions.

    D) Trans-oceanic flights only.

  5. Convergency is zero at:

    A) The Poles.

    B) The Equator.

    C) All latitudes.

    D) The Prime Meridian only.

  6. The scale on a Mercator chart increases as:

    A) Latitude increases.

    B) Longitude increases.

    C) Latitude decreases.

    D) One moves toward the equator.

  7. A “Large Scale” map shows:

    A) A large area with little detail.

    B) A small area with much detail.

    C) The whole world.

    D) Only oceans.

  8. The “Standard Parallel” in a Conic projection is where:

    A) The cone is tangent to the sphere.

    B) Distortion is maximum.

    C) The Equator lies.

    D) The Prime Meridian lies.

  9. On a Mercator chart, the Great Circle track is:

    A) A straight line.

    B) Curved toward the Equator.

    C) Curved toward the Pole.

    D) Not representable.

  10. A Great Circle track on a Polar Stereographic chart is:

    A) A straight line.

    B) Nearly a straight line.

    C) A circle centered on the pole.

    D) A spiral.

Section 3: Time

  1. If it is 1200 UTC, what is the Local Mean Time (LMT) at longitude $075^{\circ} E$?

    A) 0700 LMT

    B) 1700 LMT

    C) 1500 LMT

    D) 0900 LMT

  2. Standard Time is usually based on:

    A) LMT of the central meridian of the country.

    B) LMT of the observer.

    C) Apparent Solar Time.

    D) UTC always.

  3. To convert UTC to IST (Indian Standard Time), you add:

    A) 5 hours.

    B) 5 hours 30 minutes.

    C) 6 hours.

    D) 4 hours 30 minutes.

  4. The “Equation of Time” is the difference between:

    A) UTC and LMT.

    B) Apparent Solar Time and Mean Solar Time.

    C) Standard Time and UTC.

    D) Summer and Winter time.

  5. How many time zones is the world divided into?

    A) 12.

    B) 24.

    C) 36.

    D) 60.

  6. International Date Line is approximately at:

    A) $0^{\circ}$ Longitude.

    B) $180^{\circ}$ Longitude.

    C) $90^{\circ} E$ Longitude.

    D) $90^{\circ} W$ Longitude.

  7. When flying from East to West, the Local Mean Time will:

    A) Become later.

    B) Become earlier.

    C) Stay the same.

    D) Be ahead of UTC.

  8. If it is 10:00 AM at $0^{\circ}$ Longitude, what time is it at $15^{\circ} W$?

    A) 11:00 AM.

    B) 09:00 AM.

    C) 10:00 AM.

    D) 12:00 PM.

  9. One hour of time is equivalent to how many degrees of longitude?

    A) $1^{\circ}$.

    B) $15^{\circ}$.

    C) $30^{\circ}$.

    D) $4^{\circ}$.

  10. LMT is the same for all observers on the same:

    A) Parallel of Latitude.

    B) Meridian of Longitude.

    C) Great Circle.

    D) Rhumb Line.

Section 4: Compass, Direction & Magnetism

  1. Compass Deviation is the angular difference between:

    A) True North and Magnetic North.

    B) Magnetic North and Compass North.

    C) True North and Compass North.

    D) Grid North and Magnetic North.

  2. The angle between the horizontal and vertical components of the Earth’s magnetic field is:

    A) Variation.

    B) Deviation.

    C) Dip.

    D) Isogonic line.

  3. An Isogonal is a line joining places of:

    A) Zero magnetic variation.

    B) Equal magnetic variation.

    C) Equal magnetic dip.

    D) Zero magnetic dip.

  4. The vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field is zero at:

    A) The Magnetic Poles.

    B) The Magnetic Equator.

    C) The Geographic Poles.

    D) The Geographic Equator.

  5. The “A” coefficient of deviation is caused by:

    A) Vertical soft iron.

    B) Horizontal soft iron.

    C) Misalignment of the compass.

    D) Permanent magnetism.

  6. Direct reading magnetic compasses are affected by “liquid swirl” during:

    A) Straight and level flight.

    B) Turns.

    C) Acceleration.

    D) Descent.

  7. Acceleration error in a compass is maximum on headings:

    A) North and South.

    B) East and West.

    C) $045^{\circ}$ and $225^{\circ}$.

    D) $135^{\circ}$ and $315^{\circ}$.

  8. Magnetic Variation is $10^{\circ} E$ and Compass Deviation is $2^{\circ} W$. If Compass Heading is $350^{\circ}$, True Heading is:

    A) $358^{\circ}$.

    B) $002^{\circ}$.

    C) $342^{\circ}$.

    D) $338^{\circ}$.

  9. Magnetic Dip is $90^{\circ}$ at:

    A) The Equator.

    B) The Magnetic Poles.

    C) The Prime Meridian.

    D) $45^{\circ}$ Latitude.

  10. Soft iron magnetism is:

    A) Permanent.

    B) Temporary and induced by the Earth’s field.

    C) Found only in the engines.

    D) Never a factor in navigation.

  11. If the True Heading is $180^{\circ}$ and Variation is $10^{\circ} E$, the Magnetic Heading is:

    A) $190^{\circ}$.

    B) $170^{\circ}$.

    C) $180^{\circ}$.

    D) $160^{\circ}$.

  12. A line of constant magnetic variation is an:

    A) Isogonal.

    B) Isocline.

    C) Isobar.

    D) Isotherm.

  13. The “B” coefficient of deviation is related to:

    A) Fore-and-aft permanent magnetism.

    B) Athwartship permanent magnetism.

    C) Compass mounting error.

    D) Vertical magnetism.

  14. Variation changes over time due to:

    A) Aircraft movement.

    B) Movement of the Magnetic Poles (Secular Change).

    C) Changes in altitude.

    D) Solar flares only.

  15. “Deviation” is caused by:

    A) Earth’s magnetic field.

    B) Magnetic fields within the aircraft.

    C) Solar activity.

    D) Ionospheric interference.

  16. Agonic lines are lines of:

    A) Maximum variation.

    B) Zero variation.

    C) Equal deviation.

    D) Equal dip.

  17. Turning error in a compass is maximum on headings:

    A) East and West.

    B) North and South.

    C) $045^{\circ}$.

    D) $180^{\circ}$ only.

  18. In the Northern Hemisphere, acceleration on an Easterly heading causes the compass to show:

    A) A turn to the North.

    B) A turn to the South.

    C) No change.

    D) An increase in airspeed.

  19. The compass needle is kept horizontal by:

    A) Gravity.

    B) Small weights (balancing).

    C) The pilot.

    D) Magnetic Dip.

  20. On a South heading in the Northern Hemisphere, a deceleration causes:

    A) An apparent turn to the North.

    / B) An apparent turn to the South.

    C) No error.

    D) Liquid swirl.

Section 5: Distance & Earth Surface

  1. One minute of arc along a Great Circle on the Earth’s surface is equal to:

    A) 1 Statute Mile.

    B) 1 Nautical Mile.

    C) 1 Kilometer.

    D) 6080 Meters.

  2. The distance between two parallels of latitude 1 degree apart is:

    A) Always 60 NM.

    B) Always 60 SM.

    C) Varies significantly from equator to pole.

    D) Exactly 111 NM.

  3. Departure is defined as:

    A) The change in latitude in NM.

    B) The distance along a parallel of latitude between two meridians.

    C) The distance along a meridian.

    D) The takeoff phase of flight.

  4. If an aircraft moves 1 degree of longitude at the Equator, the distance is:

    A) 60 NM.

    B) 0 NM.

    C) 30 NM.

    D) 111 NM.

  5. A “Small Circle” is:

    A) Any circle on the earth’s surface whose center is not the center of the earth.

    B) The Equator.

    C) Any Meridian.

    D) A Great Circle.

  6. 1 Degree of Latitude equals:

    A) 60 NM.

    B) 1 NM.

    C) 360 NM.

    D) 10 NM.

  7. The Great Circle track from A ($45^{\circ}N\ 010^{\circ}W$) to B ($45^{\circ}N\ 030^{\circ}W$) is:

    A) Exactly $270^{\circ}$.

    B) Less than $270^{\circ}$.

    C) Greater than $270^{\circ}$ initially.

    D) $090^{\circ}$.

  8. Parallels of Latitude are:

    A) Great Circles.

    B) Small Circles (except the Equator).

    C) Lines of constant longitude.

    D) Convergent at the poles.

  9. What is the Departure between Long $010^{\circ} E$ and $020^{\circ} E$ at Latitude $60^{\circ} N$?

    A) 600 NM

    B) 300 NM

    C) 520 NM

    D) 100 NM

  10. The Prime Meridian passes through:

    A) Paris.

    B) New York.

    C) Greenwich.

    D) Tokyo.

Section 6: Dead Reckoning & Flight Navigation

  1. Dead Reckoning (DR) involves finding a position using:

    A) Visual landmarks only.

    B) Radio navigation aids only.

    C) Estimated speed, time, and direction from a known point.

    D) Satellite GPS coordinates.

  2. The “1 in 60 rule” states that 1 degree of track error results in a displacement of:

    A) 1 NM after 60 NM.

    B) 60 NM after 1 NM.

    C) 1 NM after 100 NM.

    D) 6 NM after 60 NM.

  3. Distance = Speed $\times$ Time. If Ground Speed is 180 kts, distance covered in 20 minutes is:

    A) 60 NM.

    B) 36 NM.

    C) 90 NM.

    D) 20 NM.

  4. An aircraft’s TAS is 200 kts, Wind is 50 kts tailwind. The Ground Speed is:

    A) 150 kts.

    B) 250 kts.

    C) 200 kts.

    D) 205 kts.

  5. To find Drift, you need to know:

    A) TAS and GS.

    B) Heading and Track.

    C) Latitude and Longitude.

    D) Altitude and Temperature.

  6. Fuel flow is 40 gallons/hour. Endurance is 4 hours. Total fuel needed (no reserves) is:

    A) 10 gallons.

    B) 160 gallons.

    C) 80 gallons.

    D) 120 gallons.

  7. A “Dead Reckoning” position is indicated on a chart by:

    A) A circle.

    B) A triangle.

    C) A plus sign within a triangle.

    D) A small dot.

  8. Track is $045^{\circ}$, Drift is $5^{\circ}$ Left. What is the Heading?

    A) $040^{\circ}$.

    B) $050^{\circ}$.

    C) $045^{\circ}$.

    D) $055^{\circ}$.

  9. If Groundspeed is 240 kts, how long does it take to fly 40 NM?

    A) 10 minutes.

    B) 6 minutes.

    C) 15 minutes.

    D) 20 minutes.

  10. “Track Made Good” (TMG) is:

    A) The intended path.

    B) The actual path traveled over the ground.

    C) The direction the nose is pointing.

    D) The wind direction.

Section 7: CP and PNR

  1. The Point of Safe Return (PNR) is the point from which an aircraft can return with:

    A) Minimum fuel required.

    B) Only reserve fuel remaining.

    C) Safe fuel endurance remaining.

    D) Zero fuel remaining.

  2. The formula for Time to Critical Point (CP) is:

    A) $(D \times H) / (O + H)$

    B) $(D \times O) / (O + H)$

    C) $(E \times H) / (O + H)$

    D) $(E \times O) / (O + H)$

  3. The Critical Point (CP) between two bases is shifted:

    A) Into the wind.

    B) Away from the wind.

    C) Toward the destination in a headwind.

    D) Is not affected by wind.

  4. Critical Point is also known as:

    A) Point of No Return.

    B) Equi-time Point (ETP).

    C) Waypoint.

    D) Top of Descent.

  5. The Critical Point is closer to the departure point if there is a:

    A) Headwind.

    B) Tailwind.

    C) Crosswind.

    D) No wind.

  6. PNR stands for:

    A) Pilot Navigation Route.

    B) Point of No Return.

    C) Primary Navigation Radio.

    D) Pressure Navigation Rate.

  7. If Groundspeed Out is 150 kts and Groundspeed Home is 100 kts, and Distance is 300 NM, the Time to CP is:

    A) 1.2 hours.

    B) 2.0 hours.

    C) 1.5 hours.

    D) 1.8 hours.

  8. If endurance is 5 hours, GS Out is 200 kts and GS Home is 250 kts, the Time to PNR is:

    A) 2.22 hours.

    B) 2.77 hours.

    C) 3.00 hours.

    D) 2.50 hours.

  9. Distance to PNR formula is:

    A) $(E \times O \times H) / (O + H)$

    B) $(E \times O) / (O + H)$

    C) $(D \times H) / (O + H)$

    D) $Endurance \times TAS$

  10. In a “No Wind” condition, the CP is:

    A) At the midpoint.

    B) Closer to departure.

    C) Closer to destination.

    D) At the PNR.

Section 8: Temperature, Pressure & Measurement

  1. In a Mercury Barometer, if the temperature increases, the reading will:

    A) Increase due to expansion of mercury.

    B) Decrease due to expansion of mercury.

    C) Remain unaffected.

    D) Increase only if pressure also increases.

  2. What instrument is used to measure humidity?

    A) Barometer.

    B) Anemometer.

    C) Hygrometer.

    D) Altimeter.

  3. ISA (International Standard Atmosphere) temperature at Sea Level is:

    A) $0^{\circ} C$.

    B) $15^{\circ} C$.

    C) $10^{\circ} C$.

    D) $20^{\circ} C$.

  4. A pressure of 1013.25 hPa is equivalent to:

    A) 29.92 inches of Mercury.

    B) 30.00 inches of Mercury.

    C) 28.00 inches of Mercury.

    D) 31.00 inches of Mercury.

  5. Anemometer measures:

    A) Pressure.

    B) Wind Speed.

    C) Temperature.

    D) Humidity.

  6. The temperature at which air must be cooled to become saturated is:

    A) Absolute Zero.

    B) Freezing Point.

    C) Dew Point.

    D) Wet bulb temperature.

  7. The Tropopause is higher at:

    A) The Poles.

    B) The Equator.

    C) Mid-latitudes.

    D) It is constant everywhere.

  8. Pressure decreases with altitude at a rate of approximately:

    A) 1 hPa per 30 feet.

    B) 1 hPa per 100 feet.

    C) 10 hPa per 1000 feet.

    D) 1 hPa per 10 feet.

  9. 100 meters is approximately:

    A) 328 feet.

    B) 393 feet.

    C) 100 feet.

    D) 500 feet.

  10. Water freezes at what temperature in Fahrenheit?

    A) $0^{\circ} F$.

    B) $32^{\circ} F$.

    C) $100^{\circ} F$.

    D) $212^{\circ} F$.

Section 9: Mass and Balance

  1. If the CG is located aft of the Aft CG Limit, the aircraft will be:

    A) More stable longitudinally.

    B) Less stable and potentially uncontrollable in pitch.

    C) Easier to recover from a stall.

    D) More efficient in a climb.

  2. In Mass and Balance, the “Basic Empty Mass” includes:

    A) Only the airframe.

    B) Airframe, engines, and unusable fuel.

    C) Airframe, engines, and full passenger load.

    D) Airframe and payload only.

  3. MAC stands for:

    A) Maximum Allowable Cargo.

    B) Mean Aerodynamic Chord.

    C) Minimum Airspeed Control.

    D) Mass and Center.

  4. The “Moment” in mass and balance is:

    A) Mass / Arm.

    B) Mass $\times$ Arm.

    C) Arm / Mass.

    D) Speed $\times$ Time.

  5. The “Datum” in mass and balance is:

    A) The center of the aircraft.

    B) A reference plane from which all horizontal distances are measured.

    C) The nose of the aircraft.

    D) The main landing gear.

  6. The “Arm” is the distance from:

    A) The CG to the tail.

    B) The Datum to the center of gravity of an item.

    C) The nose to the tail.

    D) The wingtip to the fuselage.

  7. “Useful Load” is:

    A) MTOW minus Empty Mass.

    B) Pilot weight only.

    C) Fuel weight only.

    D) Payload minus fuel.

  8. If an aircraft’s CG is too far forward:

    A) It will be tail heavy.

    B) It will require excessive elevator back pressure to rotate.

    C) It will be unstable.

    D) It will have a higher cruise speed.

  9. If the total mass of an aircraft is increased, the stall speed will:

    A) Decrease.

    B) Remain the same.

    C) Increase.

    D) Become zero.

  10. The “Moment Arm” is:

    A) The weight of the object.

    B) The distance from the datum to the object.

    C) The force of the engine.

    D) The length of the wing.


ANSWER KEY (On a separate page)

  1. B | 2. A | 3. B | 4. A | 5. B | 6. B | 7. C | 8. B | 9. B | 10. B

  2. B | 12. A | 13. B | 14. C | 15. B | 16. A | 17. B | 18. A | 19. C | 20. B

  3. B | 22. A | 23. B | 24. B | 25. B | 26. B | 27. B | 28. B | 29. B | 30. B

  4. B | 32. C | 33. B | 34. B | 35. C | 36. B | 37. B | 38. A | 39. B | 40. B

  5. B | 42. A | 43. A | 44. B | 45. B | 46. B | 47. B | 48. A | 49. B | 50. B

  6. B | 52. A | 53. B | 54. A | 55. A | 56. A | 57. C | 58. B | 59. B | 60. C

  7. C | 62. A | 63. A | 64. B | 65. B | 66. B | 67. B | 68. B | 69. A | 70. B

  8. C | 72. A | 73. C | 74. B | 75. B | 76. B | 77. A | 78. B | 79. A | 80. A

  9. A | 82. C | 83. B | 84. A | 85. B | 86. C | 87. B | 88. A | 89. A | 90. B

  10. B | 92. B | 93. B | 94. B | 95. B | 96. B | 97. A | 98. B | 99. C | 100. B

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